From: Doherty Kevin SSgt 325 CS/SCBM (Kevin.Doherty@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri May 10 2002 - 16:34:37 GMT-3
Thomas,
I would try a tunnel across R2 thereby connecting r1 & r3 on a
common subnet. You can then form an OSPF adjacency (over the tunnel
interface) and then establish the virtual link. You must have the adjacency
in order to form the virt-link. Let me know if this works, HTH
Kevin
CCIE #9089
-----Original Message-----
From: Warner, Thomas S [mailto:thomas.s.warner@lmco.com]
Sent: Friday, May 10, 2002 1:58 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: OSPF Virtual Link across Non-OSPF area?
Greetings
I have a quick question regarding OSPF and virtual links. I don't think
this is possible but here goes anyway - Is it possible to create an OSPF
virtual link across a non OSPF routing domain (where the routing domain has
full routing information to get between the two ASBRs)? Normally, if I had
to connect two areas such as this, I would use another approach such as
redistribution or migrating the non OSPF routing domain to OSPF, but these
are not options at the present time.
Area 1 Area 0
--- R1 --- R2 --- R3 ----
R1 and R3 are running OSPF and R2 is not running OSPF but has static routes
configured to allow R1 and R3 to communicate. So in this scenario, would I
be able to connect Area 1 to Area 0 via a virtual link?
Thanks,
Tom Warner
Lockheed Martin
email: mailto:thomas.s.warner@lmco.com
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Thu Jun 13 2002 - 10:58:54 GMT-3