From: steven owen (trueccie@xxxxxxxxx)
Date: Mon May 06 2002 - 14:07:32 GMT-3
As far as i know ,i can choose any ip on an ospf
router as ROUTER-ID.
Is it different that i choose an area 0 int as
router-id or an area 1 int as router-id at same
router?
Thanks.
--- Waeil Elkadi <cciexyz@hotmail.com> wrote:
>
> Try having the R3 router-id in backbone area
>
> Please let me know if it works.
>
>
>
===================================================================
>
> >From: steven owen <trueccie@yahoo.com>
> >Reply-To: steven owen <trueccie@yahoo.com>
> >To: ccielab <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
> >Subject: ospf virtual link
> >Date: Sat, 4 May 2002 21:13:36 -0700 (PDT)
> >
> >I GOT r1,r2,r3 connected by FR,all the interfaces
> on
> >FR are on area 1,r1 and r2 have an ethernet int
> each
> >,which is on area 2,r3 have an int on area 0.
> >Can i build a vl between r1 ,r2 on area 2 to backup
> >area 1 link if FR is down?
> >and before i build vl,r1 always receives such the
> >following error message:
> >"%OSPF-4-ERRRCV: Received invalid packet: mismatch
> >area ID, from backbone area must be virtual-link
> but
> >not found from 20.4.1.1, FastEthernet1/0"
> >but r2 doesn't have an int on area 0.Why?
> >
> >
> >Thanks.
> >
> >
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.1.4 : Thu Jun 13 2002 - 10:58:51 GMT-3