Re: ospf virtual link

From: Sean C. (Upp_and_Upp@xxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Sun May 05 2002 - 15:48:25 GMT-3


   
Hi Steven,

I'm trying to follow your post but I'm a little confused. I'm not sure on
how Area 2 is directly connected to Area 0. If r1 and r2 only have
connections to Area 0 via frame (and through Area 1), then Area 2 must be
using Area 1 as Area 2's Virtual-link to Area 0. I'm not sure on how you
want to keep up Area 2 if Area 1 becomes unattached to r3 (Area 0) - or for
that matter how Area 1 can talk to Area 0 if R3s frame connection goes down.

The error message you are receiving is similar to a message I received if I
had 2 routers' TR ints connected by a mau and the TR ints were in different
areas. An OSPF hello message was being broadcasted out one TR int and was
received by the 2nd TR int and interpreted as trying to go to Area 0 (and
thus needing the Virtual-link) . If your FastEth ports are connected by a
switch then you might be receiving a similar message - an OSPF broadcast
sent out one port in one area and received by a 2nd interface in a 2nd
area - do you have vlans defined on the switch?

Anyway, HTH,
Sean

----- Original Message -----
From: "steven owen" <trueccie@yahoo.com>
To: "ccielab" <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
Sent: Saturday, May 04, 2002 9:13 PM
Subject: ospf virtual link

I GOT r1,r2,r3 connected by FR,all the interfaces on
FR are on area 1,r1 and r2 have an ethernet int each
,which is on area 2,r3 have an int on area 0.
Can i build a vl between r1 ,r2 on area 2 to backup
area 1 link if FR is down?
and before i build vl,r1 always receives such the
following error message:
"%OSPF-4-ERRRCV: Received invalid packet: mismatch
area ID, from backbone area must be virtual-link but
not found from 20.4.1.1, FastEthernet1/0"
but r2 doesn't have an int on area 0.Why?

Thanks.



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