From: Luke (luke.mendoza@xxxxxxxx)
Date: Tue Jun 05 2001 - 13:10:18 GMT-3
Hi,
Going back to the previous scenario that I had:
r1 s2.1 >>>>>>>>>> r2 s2.1 - Area 0
r dialer0 >>>>>>>>> r2 dialer0 - Area 100
r1 Ethernet 0 - Area 10
if I put a virtual-link statement for Area 100
what are the other caveats for virtual-link on ISDN connections?
I recall sometime ago of a discussion on Virtual-link and Area 0
Authentication. I searched the archives and found a bit of information was
a bit messy on the information and some contradictions.
Can anyone give a quick summation of the issue so I can try and recreate it?
thanks!
Luke
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