From: eugeneonline (eugeneonline@xxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri May 25 2001 - 10:31:55 GMT-3
Hi Andy,
Without the Vlink, R2 is not part os the OSPF domain at all. With Vlink R2 beco
mes part of the OSPf domain and should calculate spf topology to go through R1
for all networks (R1 is tunnel). Therefore I believe next hop will always be R1
for all R1 networks and in fact all OSPF networks. This is only logical thinki
ng though, I have not confirmed confirmed in lab. HTH.
Regards
Eugene Akhanoba
ANDY NWEBUBE <wizdata@hotmail.com> wrote:
Guys,
I wonder if their is anybody who remembers the discussion on Virtual
Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem to find it.
The scenario was something like this:
________ _______ _______
|Area 0| |Area1| |Area2|
| R0 |--| R1 |--| R2 |
|______| |_____| |_____|
There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1. Traffic needs to
get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the virtual link has to
use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed R1 (in Area 1)
to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actuall flow just to R1 from
R2.
I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on the archives.
Quite interesting issues.
Regards,
Andy
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