From: Brian Dennis (brian@xxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 19:16:40 GMT-3
Nope the answer is true. You can have a partitioned area other than area 0.
Most people will try to create a virtual link to tie the area together but
it's not needed. Area 0 is the only area that will have problems if it
becomes partitioned.
Brian Dennis
CCIE #2210 (R&S)(ISP/Dial)
CCSI #98640
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
Frank Jimenez
Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:41 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: RE: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
False. You can have multiple Area 0s, that can then be connected via
virtual links. Can you have multiple areas other than Area 0? Never seen
an example like that....
Frank Jimenez
franjime@cisco.com
At 02:29 PM 04/30/2001 -0700, you wrote:
>The statement is not correct. If there is more than one OSPF area, then
>there MUST be an area 0. If there is a single area, it can be anything you
>want. This actually makes sense in terms of the OSPF standard. By
>definition, all traffic in such a case would be intra area traffic, and the
>routers would not be concerned with exiting the area.
>
>Now for the fun one. In a multiple area OSPF network, all area numbers must
>be unique - true or false? Why?
>
>Chuck
>
>-----Original Message-----
>From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
>Niall El-Assaad
>Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:04 PM
>To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
>Subject: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
>
>In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF configuration must have
>an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area for your entire network it
>must be area 0".
>
>Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area it doesn't matter what
it
>is? Does it?
>
>
>=======================================================
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>EMEA-UK Retail Finance North
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