From: Erick B. (erickbe@xxxxxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 18:56:04 GMT-3
I beg to differ. If you have a multi-area OSPF network
then area 0.0.0.0 is required. If you have a network
and all routers are in the same area then you could
put everything in area 51 and have no area 0.
This works. I have done it with IOS. It is explained
this way in the OSPF class I went to awhile back...
and in some books I've read in the past but can't
recall offhand.
--- Frank Jimenez <franjime@cisco.com> wrote:
> Niall,
> No, this is correct. Every OSPF network must
> have a backbone area, and 0.0.0.0 is reserved for
> the backbone. Therefore, if you have an OSPF
> network with only one area, this single area must be
> the backbone, and must therefore be identified as
> Area 0.
>
> Frank Jimenez, CCIE #5738
> Systems Engineer
> Cisco Systems, Inc.
> franjime@cisco.com
>
>
> At 10:03 PM 04/30/2001 +0100, Niall El-Assaad wrote:
> >In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF
> configuration must have
> >an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area
> for your entire network it
> >must be area 0".
> >
> >Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area
> it doesn't matter what it
> >is? Does it?
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