From: Chuck Larrieu (chuck@xxxxxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Mon Apr 30 2001 - 18:29:10 GMT-3
The statement is not correct. If there is more than one OSPF area, then
there MUST be an area 0. If there is a single area, it can be anything you
want. This actually makes sense in terms of the OSPF standard. By
definition, all traffic in such a case would be intra area traffic, and the
routers would not be concerned with exiting the area.
Now for the fun one. In a multiple area OSPF network, all area numbers must
be unique - true or false? Why?
Chuck
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com] On Behalf Of
Niall El-Assaad
Sent: Monday, April 30, 2001 2:04 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: Error on page 387 of BRS 4CCIEs Version 2
In the book on this page it says "Every valid OSPF configuration must have
an area 0, so if you use only a single OSPF area for your entire network it
must be area 0".
Surely this isn't right. If you have only one area it doesn't matter what it
is? Does it?
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