From: Johnny Dedon (johnny.dedon@xxxxxxxxxx)
Date: Fri Apr 27 2001 - 12:50:43 GMT-3
Are you saying that if I am running ospf or eigrp and I have no ip
classless statement that what you described will happen?
My opinion is that the ip classless statement has NO effect at all on the
routing decisions if a classfull routing protocol is not involved.
Different opinions welcomed
Johnny Dedon
Senior Staff Consultant
Exodus Professional Services
johnny.dedon@exodus.net
www.exodus.net
----- Original Message -----
From: <gb@ms.mine.nu>
To: "Atif Awan" <atifawan@hotmail.com>; <ccielab@groupstudy.com>;
<radhaccie@hotmail.com>
Sent: Friday, April 27, 2001 10:24 AM
Subject: Re: ip classless
> That is not exactly true. Without ip classless a router will not use a
> default route if the destination is in the same CLASSFULL network as one
of
> the routers interfaces.
>
> IE
>
> if you have routes for 10.1.1.0/24 and an interface with address
10.1.2.1/24
> and a packet with destination of 10.1.3.0/24 that packet would be dropped
> before it is forwarded to the default gateway.
>
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Atif Awan" <atifawan@hotmail.com>
> To: <radhaccie@hotmail.com>; <ccielab@groupstudy.com>
> Sent: Friday, April 27, 2001 2:57 PM
> Subject: Re: ip classless
>
>
> > This command changes the router's lookup algorithm. No doubt OSPF is a
> > classless protocol but it only provides the router with the routes, it
> does
> > not in any way affect the way a router determines how to forward packets
(
> > that is using the classful or the classless algorithm ).
> >
> > >From: "radha rani" <radhaccie@hotmail.com>
> > >Reply-To: "radha rani" <radhaccie@hotmail.com>
> > >To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
> > >Subject: ip classless
> > >Date: Fri, 27 Apr 2001 10:00:06 -0400
> > >
> > >I have a question re: ip classless. My understanding is that if there
is
> > >no
> > >specific route for a subnet in the routing table, this command allows
the
> > >router to forward packets to unknown destinations using the default
> route.
> > >This being the case when the destination is a subnet of a network which
> is
> > >known to the router.
> > >
> > >My question is : since OSPF is a classless protocol, why do I need this
> > >command to have the router forward packets using the default route. I
> see
> > >this all the time where the router will not utilize the default route
> until
> > >this command is added.
> > >
> > >I can unserstand needing it with IGRP/RIP but why with OSPF?
> > >
> > >Can someone expalin. Thanks so much.
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