RE: OSPF virtual-link question

From: ChrisH (chrish@xxxxxxxx)
Date: Wed Jan 03 2001 - 00:27:38 GMT-3


   
OSPF area 100 and 20 connect directly to Area 0. Area 10 needs to go through
Area 100 to get to Area 0. Therefore, you should have a statements that
looks like:

R6:
area 100 virtual-link x.x.x.x( R1's RID)

R1:
area 100 virtual-link y.y.y.y (R6's RID)

In R3, I assume that you have something that looks like:

router ospf 100
network 150.150.100.1 0.0.0.0 area 20

I am not aware of any IOS bugs related to this issue.

Chris
-----Original Message-----
From: nobody@groupstudy.com [mailto:nobody@groupstudy.com]On Behalf Of
Vijay Venkatesh
Sent: Tuesday, January 02, 2001 9:08 PM
To: ccielab@groupstudy.com
Subject: OSPF virtual-link question

Here is the situation

r8 ---- r6 ------r1----r3 ---- network 150.150.100.1/24 (loop 0)

Between r1 and r3 is area 0
between r6 and r1 is area 100
between r8 and r6 is area 10
r3's loop 0 is in area 20

area 100 has a ospf virt link between r6 and r1
The ospf virt link is up

The problem
-----------
r3's loop0 is 150.150.100.1/24 and is in area 20. I can every network
on r8 except for the 150.150.100.1 network. What is the problem ? Is
there something special when sending loopbacks across virtual links ?
Is this an IOS issue ?

Router versions
---------------
all routers are running 11.2.19 IOS



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